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Old 14 January 2005, 01:33 PM
  #31  
Senior_AP
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The concept is wrong. That's not opinion, that's fact.

Other than pslewis pretending to agree with it I cannot see how anybody could justify this as anything other than totally wrong.
Old 14 January 2005, 01:34 PM
  #32  
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IMHO it is fair, its just that it is being marketed under the new labour brand.

IIRC it is law in Norway, somebody was fined $30,000 for drunk driving source
Old 14 January 2005, 01:35 PM
  #33  
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aww crap ive gotta agree with pete on this one
lets just see how it gets applied first though
good idea in principal-watch nl **** it up inside 6 months
richie
Old 14 January 2005, 01:37 PM
  #34  
pslewis
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Originally Posted by Senior_AP
The concept is wrong
You are unbelievably stupid

Oh, yes, thats a FACT!!

Pete
Old 14 January 2005, 01:38 PM
  #35  
darts_aint_sport
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Why should someone earning more be considered more of a criminal? As said earlier, surely the police would rather catch one millionaire than several poorer repeat-offending social parasite resource-bleeding members of society, how can that be justice. Means-tested penalties will mean means-tested convictions, no?
Old 14 January 2005, 01:44 PM
  #36  
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This is actually a masterstoke by the government, similar to that of the 4% stamp duty. In creating more wealthy people in the country they will increase their revenues. When they introduced 4% stamp duty over 250K, house prices were still quite low. Now many more properties are over 250K.
Old 14 January 2005, 01:44 PM
  #37  
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no i think the principal is that of using the fine as a punishment.
a fine of £100 may be a punishment to someone on benefit level incomes but not for someone earning £60k. should the rich not be punished?
richie
Old 14 January 2005, 01:45 PM
  #38  
hail-hail
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Please explain how means-tested convictions would work, my brain hurts.

If I earn £100k per year should I get more or less time in jail
Old 14 January 2005, 01:47 PM
  #39  
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Originally Posted by darts_aint_sport
Why should someone earning more be considered more of a criminal?
Eh?? they are NOT considered as more of a criminal where did you read that then, SPORT? SUN? MIRROR???

The fine for the rich should inflict the SAME pain as the fine for the poor - its as simple and fair as that!

Pete
Old 14 January 2005, 01:48 PM
  #40  
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Originally Posted by hail-hail
I think in principle it is ok.
The point of fining people is to deter them from doing stuff again. There is also an element of punishment involved.

Person 1 gets caught doing 50 in a 30 - fined £300
Person 2 gets caught doing 50 in a 30 - fined £300

Person 1 is a millionaire, Person 2 makes millionaires shortbread.

If we are using fines as a punishment / to deter this will not affect the millionaire in the slightest.

How is this fair?
The punishment should be relative to the crime NOT the earnings of the offender.

You're being punished for a crime - not for what you get paid at work.
Old 14 January 2005, 01:49 PM
  #41  
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Originally Posted by pslewis
Eh?? they are NOT considered as more of a criminal where did you read that then, SPORT? SUN? MIRROR???

The fine for the rich should inflict the SAME pain as the fine for the poor - its as simple and fair as that!

Pete


Pete, nothing compares to the pain of reading your propaganda!
Old 14 January 2005, 01:49 PM
  #42  
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Originally Posted by hail-hail
Please explain how means-tested convictions would work, my brain hurts.

If I earn £100k per year should I get more or less time in jail
We are talking FINES not jail!!

1 day to the rich is the SAME as 1 day to the poor .... BUT .... the loss of £1 is DIFFERENT to the rich and to the poor!

No wonder your brain hurts - it doesn't work too well does it? get it serviced!!

Pete
Old 14 January 2005, 01:54 PM
  #43  
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Everyone should pay the same for public amenities as everyone has equal rights/access to them.

Everyone should pay the same for equal goods/services as they are receiving the same goods/services.

Everyone should get fined the same if they commit a crime because you are paying for the crime and an appropriate monetary cost of that individual crime - you are not paying a fine for how much your employer decides to pay you.
Old 14 January 2005, 01:54 PM
  #44  
hail-hail
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Originally Posted by pslewis
Eh?? they are NOT considered as more of a criminal where did you read that then, SPORT? SUN? MIRROR???

The fine for the rich should inflict the SAME pain as the fine for the poor - its as simple and fair as that!

Pete
ok, so the fine system is just there for the gov to make a set fee for a set offence, it has nothing to do with punishment or deterrence.

if this is why the system was designed then I agree, it is fair

if however the justice system should be trying to deter repeat offenders, then how can a set fine be fair.

and if you really need to just shout and jump around getting all excited, don't feel as if you have to answer this point with any degree of sanity
Old 14 January 2005, 02:00 PM
  #45  
hail-hail
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Originally Posted by pslewis
We are talking FINES not jail!!

1 day to the rich is the SAME as 1 day to the poor .... BUT .... the loss of £1 is DIFFERENT to the rich and to the poor!

No wonder your brain hurts - it doesn't work too well does it? get it serviced!!

Pete
it was a reply to an earlier post by darts_aint_sport making your exact point.

need a brain service yourself old timer
Old 14 January 2005, 02:04 PM
  #46  
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Originally Posted by pslewis
Eh?? they are NOT considered as more of a criminal where did you read that then, SPORT? SUN? MIRROR???
But don't you see. As far as the police are concerned, they are many times more profitable to see get convicted, so are going to go to more efforts to see the richer person pay up (and therefore may as well be considered more of a criminal as far as the police is concerned)

It is in effect giving the police an incentive to target richer people. How is this Justice PSLewis.
Old 14 January 2005, 02:05 PM
  #47  
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The whole idea is gay.
Old 14 January 2005, 02:18 PM
  #48  
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lesser earners not bothered, higher earners of course are going to object....

http://bbs.scoobynet.co.uk/showthread.php?t=394550
Old 14 January 2005, 02:19 PM
  #49  
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The idea is not new at all. This is the system in Austria, Finland, Sweden, Norway, I think Denmark... the classic was the Nokia boss who was speeding and was fined X million euro as they took into account his share bonuses from the previous year.

Ask people in those countries if they feel the rich have been targeted.
Old 14 January 2005, 02:25 PM
  #50  
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Originally Posted by InvisibleMan
lesser earners not bothered, higher earners of course are going to object....

http://bbs.scoobynet.co.uk/showthread.php?t=394550

It's the principle.
Old 14 January 2005, 02:29 PM
  #51  
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Let's say Bobby works for IBM and earns £60k a year, and causes a crime and has to pay £5k. A month later he is sacked.

Percy works for Morrisons, earns £14k a year, and causes the same crime, and has to pay £1k. A month later, Percy gets a job at IBM and earns £60k a year, taking Bobbys place.

Bobby pays more because at that particular time he was earning more than Percy. And I'm sure theres many other situations that can cause the same confusion. Confusion and injustice we can avoid by not having this measure.

Just because other countries do it doesn't make it right.
Old 14 January 2005, 02:35 PM
  #52  
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Originally Posted by pslewis
Person 1 earns the national average of £35k - 50 in a 30 = £300 fine

Try £25k...


Anyway, a fine is a fine, and should be equal across the board for a given crime IMO.
Old 14 January 2005, 02:35 PM
  #53  
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WTF?

Both get fined X% of their salary. Sounds fair to me.

If Percy can go from Morrisons to IBM with a 4x jump in salary, good luck to him, though what's the chances? What's that got to do with the price of fish?

The idea of a penalty is a deterrent. It should be an equal deterrent to all. If one guy gives out his pocket money and the other has to sell his house, does that sound equal?

The only confusion is in your head. But if you keep making up crazy straw man examples like that, it'll be in mine, too, I'll agree...
Old 14 January 2005, 02:35 PM
  #54  
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More **** legislation from a **** government.

I can't believe anyone would still vote *for* them, other than a total moron.
Old 14 January 2005, 02:35 PM
  #55  
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Originally Posted by darts_aint_sport
Let's say Bobby works for IBM and earns £60k a year, and causes a crime and has to pay £5k. A month later he is sacked.

Percy works for Morrisons, earns £14k a year, and causes the same crime, and has to pay £1k. A month later, Percy gets a job at IBM and earns £60k a year, taking Bobbys place.

Bobby pays more because at that particular time he was earning more than Percy. And I'm sure theres many other situations that can cause the same confusion. Confusion and injustice we can avoid by not having this measure.

Just because other countries do it doesn't make it right.

Shockingly enough I agree 100%

I hadn't thought of that, good one.
Old 14 January 2005, 02:36 PM
  #56  
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Originally Posted by unclebuck
More **** legislation from a **** government.

I can't believe anyone would still vote *for* them, other than a total moron.

pslewis votes for them......
Old 14 January 2005, 02:40 PM
  #57  
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Originally Posted by Senior_AP
Everyone should pay the same for public amenities as everyone has equal rights/access to them.

Everyone should pay the same for equal goods/services as they are receiving the same goods/services.

Everyone should get fined the same if they commit a crime because you are paying for the crime and an appropriate monetary cost of that individual crime - you are not paying a fine for how much your employer decides to pay you.
Senior, my original thoughts were right there with you on this, but then I thought more deeply about it.

Everyone should pay the same for public amenities (although they don't in practice)

Everyone should pay the same for the same goods and services (which pretty much holds up)

Where the third point in relation to crimes fall down, is that you are not "paying for the crime" you are, when fined, being penalised financially as a deterrent to doing it again.

To equaly penalise individuals of different income or net worth will require proportionally different fines. There is no doubt that a £10,000 fine to a professional footballer on £25,000 per week is less of a deterrent than to fine someone on £250 per week £100, even though both fines represent the same percentage of gross income.

The £100 fine to the pro footballer is probably what he throws away in loose change. £100 to the lower paid individual probably means they don't eat that week.

For the record, I think Blair and the new labour MP's should be the test crew for the first one way manned trip to the sun, but there is sound thinking here. Of course the tories are jumping on the bandwagon, they would be daft not to, but I doubt they are opposing it because deep down they don't agree with it.

What needs to happen though, is that it should only apply for certain types of "crime"

D
Old 14 January 2005, 02:41 PM
  #58  
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whats confusing about that? you pay a fine according to the salary at the time of the crime. if the salary goes up/down & comits another crime the fine will be according to that salary at that time...
Old 14 January 2005, 02:45 PM
  #59  
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Originally Posted by Senior_AP
pslewis votes for them......
He also calls himself laughingly 'the king of windup' so maybe he doesn't. In common with Blair though, you can't believe a single word he says.
Old 14 January 2005, 02:46 PM
  #60  
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Originally Posted by Diablo
Senior, my original thoughts were right there with you on this, but then I thought more deeply about it.

Everyone should pay the same for public amenities (although they don't in practice)

Everyone should pay the same for the same goods and services (which pretty much holds up)

Where the third point in relation to crimes fall down, is that you are not "paying for the crime" you are, when fined, being penalised financially as a deterrent to doing it again.

To equaly penalise individuals of different income or net worth will require proportionally different fines. There is no doubt that a £10,000 fine to a professional footballer on £25,000 per week is less of a deterrent than to fine someone on £250 per week £100, even though both fines represent the same percentage of gross income.

The £100 fine to the pro footballer is probably what he throws away in loose change. £100 to the lower paid individual probably means they don't eat that week.

For the record, I think Blair and the new labour MP's should be the test crew for the first one way manned trip to the sun, but there is sound thinking here. Of course the tories are jumping on the bandwagon, they would be daft not to, but I doubt they are opposing it because deep down they don't agree with it.

What needs to happen though, is that it should only apply for certain types of "crime"

D
I do see the argument but I just can't quite 'dig it'.

As for Tories, a fundamentalist Conservative would not agree with this policy. Hence why I do not.


Quick Reply: Yeah because that would be justice



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