View Poll Results: Brought or Bought?
Brought is the past tense of 'to buy' isn't it?
9
36.00%
it's the way i talks innit
10
40.00%
it's apple's spellchecker doing it
1
4.00%
im dislecsik
5
20.00%
Voters: 25. You may not vote on this poll
BROUGHT or BOUGHT
#62
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#63
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It effing annoys me too!
Some people need to learn how to spell. They're/There/Their, Where/We're/Were, Lose/Loose or Brought/Bought they all irritate me. At first I thought it was foreign speakers or children then I realized they're just thick.
I tend to ask them where they brought it from and they don't get it.
Some people need to learn how to spell. They're/There/Their, Where/We're/Were, Lose/Loose or Brought/Bought they all irritate me. At first I thought it was foreign speakers or children then I realized they're just thick.
I tend to ask them where they brought it from and they don't get it.
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Which winds people like me up.
#68
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Oxford Dictionary only accepts realized due to its proliferation in US derived software. Realised is still the only true UK spelling of the word.
#69
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Its a sad sign of today's "youf" - saying that, there are some shockingly illiterate older users on here too, obviously too busy rubbing one out to pay attention in English lessons.
Sad, very sad...
Sad, very sad...
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#73
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As quoted in Wikipedia:
""[I]n mod.F. the suffix has become -iser, alike in words from Greek, as baptiser, évangéliser, organiser, and those formed after them from L., as civiliser, cicatriser, humaniser. Hence, some have used the spelling -ise in Eng., as in French, for all these words, and some prefer -ise in words formed in French or Eng. from L. elements, retaining -ize for those of Gr. composition. But the suffix itself, whatever the element to which it is added, is in its origin the Gr. -ιζειν, L. -izāre; and, as the pronunciation is also with z, there is no reason why in English the special French spelling should be followed, in opposition to that which is at once etymological and phonetic. In this Dictionary the termination is uniformly written -ize. (In the Gr. -ιζ-, the i was short, so originally in L., but the double consonant z (= dz, ts) made the syllable long; when the z became a simple consonant, (-idz) became īz, whence Eng. (-aɪz).)"
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Oxford_spelling
http://oxforddictionaries.com/page/s...iseyse?view=uk
As someone who did a few years of Greek and also spent some time in Oxford, I'm not going to disguise where my allegiance lies on the issue
#75
Or do you think that maybe I realiSed that after all?
Les
#76
In mollymoos defence your original post just pointed out that both words existed, something that wasnt the issue
I myself after reading it thought "pointless"
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...but it is surprising how many members of this board don't know the correct usage
mb
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